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Arizona
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Arizona

In Arizona, the Good Samaritan law extends broad immunity to AED programs, covering numerous activities without tying this protection to the adherence to specific administrative or operational protocols. The law also necessitates the installation of AEDs in particular structures, including state buildings and dental practices. Moreover, AED initiatives are obligated to document aspects such as maintenance, medical oversight, emergency medical services engagement, and actual AED utilization.

Arizona Law Key Takeaways

Requirement

Summary

Good Samaritan Law
The Good Samaritan Law ensures that individuals who provide emergency assistance in good faith to those appearing to suffer from sudden cardiac arrest (SCA) are safeguarded against civil liability.
Physician Oversight
Physician oversight is required for AEDs.
Report After Use
Following the use of an AED, a report must be filed with the Department of Health Services' Bureau of Emergency Medical Services and Trauma Systems no later than five business days post-incident.
Maintenance Program
AEDs should be maintained according to the manufacturer's specifications.
Dentist Offices
AEDs should be available in dentist offices.
State Buildings
State buildings either newly constructed or undergoing significant renovations with costs of at least $250,000 are mandated to equip Automated External Defibrillators (AEDs).

Arizona Statutes and Regulations

“Automated external defibrillator” means a medical device heart monitor and defibrillator that:

(a) Is approved for premarket modification by the United States food and drug administration pursuant to 21 United States Code section 360(k).

(b) Is capable of recognizing the presence or absence of ventricular fibrillation or rapid ventricular tachycardia and is capable of determining, without intervention by an operator, if defibrillation should be performed.

(c) Automatically charges and delivers an electrical impulse to a person’s heart when it determines that defibrillation should be performed.

“Defibrillation” means the administration of a controlled electrical charge to the heart to restore a viable cardiac rhythm.

“Physician” means a physician who is licensed pursuant to title 32, chapter 13 or 17, and who provides medical oversight services pursuant to section 36-2262.

“Trained user” means a person who is the expected user of an automated external defibrillator and who has completed training in its use.

“Training” means a state approved course in cardiopulmonary resuscitation and the use of an automated external defibrillator for the lay rescuer and first responder, including the course adopted by the American heart association and in effect as of December 31, 1998.

1. Except as provided in section 36-2264, a person or entity that acquires an automated external defibrillator shall:

2. Enter into an agreement with a physician who shall oversee the aspects of public access to defibrillation.

3. Require each trained user who uses an automated external defibrillator on a person in cardiac arrest to call telephone number 911 as soon as possible.

4. Submit a written report to the bureau of emergency medical services and trauma systems in the department of health services within five working days after its use.

5. Ensure that the automated external defibrillator is maintained in good working order and tested according to the manufacturer’s guidelines.

A. The following persons and entities are not subject to civil liability for any personal injury that results from any act or omission that does not amount to willful misconduct or gross negligence:

5. A physician who provides oversight.

6. A person or entity that provides training in cardiopulmonary resuscitation and use of an automated external defibrillator.

7. A person or entity that acquires an automated external defibrillator pursuant to this article.

8. The owner of the property or facility where the automated external defibrillator is located.

9. A person or entity that provides the automated external defibrillator pursuant to this article.

10. A nonprofit entity that, in the placement of an automated external defibrillator pursuant to this article, acts as an intermediary between the provider of an automated external defibrillator and the person or entity that acquired the automated external defibrillator or the owner of the property or facility where the automated external defibrillator is located.

11. A good Samaritan. For the purposes of this paragraph, “good Samaritan” means a person who uses an automated external defibrillator to render emergency care or assistance in good faith and without compensation at the scene of any accident, fire or other life-threatening emergency.

12. A trained user.

B. The exception from civil liability provided in subsection A does not affect a manufacturer’s product liability regarding the design, manufacturing or instructions for use and maintenance of an automated external defibrillator.

A. A person who obtains an automated external defibrillator for home use pursuant to a physician’s prescription is exempt from the requirements of this article.

B. A person who is employed as a firefighter, emergency medical care technician or ambulance attendant by a fire district established pursuant to title 48, chapter 5 is exempt from the requirements of this article.

C. A person who is employed as a firefighter, emergency medical care technician or ambulance attendant by a public or private fire department or an ambulance service regulated by this chapter is exempt from the requirements of this article.

A. Any state building that is constructed or any state building that undergoes a major renovation at a cost of at least two hundred fifty thousand dollars after the effective date of this section must be equipped with automated external defibrillators.

B. For fiscal year 2003-2004 and each fiscal year thereafter, the joint legislative budget committee and the governor’s office of strategic planning and budgeting shall include funding for the placement of automated external defibrillators in capital budgets for new state buildings.

A. Before administering general anesthesia, or deep sedation by any means, in a dental office or dental clinic, a dentist shall possess a Section 1301 permit issued by the Board. The dentist may renew a Section 1301 permit every five years by complying with R4-11-1307.

B. To obtain or renew a Section 1301 permit, a dentist shall:

2. On forms provided by the Board, provide a dated and signed affidavit attesting that any office or dental clinic where the dentist will administer general anesthesia or deep sedation:

a. Contains the following properly operating equipment and supplies during the provision of general anesthesia and deep sedation:

i. Emergency drugs;

ii. Electrocardiograph monitor;

iii. Pulse oximeter;

iv. Cardiac defibrillator or automated external defibrillator (AED);

v. Positive pressure oxygen and supplemental oxygen;

vi. Suction equipment, including endotracheal, tonsillar, or pharyngeal and emergency backup medical suction device;

vii. Laryngoscope, multiple blades, backup batteries, and backup bulbs;

viii. Endotracheal tubes and appropriate connectors;

ix. Magill forceps;

x. Oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways;

xi. Auxiliary lighting;

xii. Stethoscope; and

xiii. Blood pressure monitoring device; and

b. Maintains a staff of supervised personnel capable of handling procedures, complications, and emergency incidents. All personnel involved in administering and monitoring general anesthesia or deep sedation shall hold a current course completion confirmation in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) Health Care Provider Level;

B. To obtain or renew a Section 1302 permit, the dentist shall:

2. On forms provided by the Board, provide a dated and signed affidavit attesting that any dental office or dental clinic where the dentist will administer parenteral sedation by intravenous or intramuscular route:

a. Contains the following properly operating equipment and supplies during the provision of parenteral sedation by the permit holder or general anesthesia or deep sedation by a physician anesthesiologist or Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA):

i. Emergency drugs;

ii. Positive pressure oxygen and supplemental oxygen;

iii. Stethoscope;

iv. Suction equipment, including tonsillar or pha-ryngeal and emergency backup medical suction device;

v. Oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways;

vi. Pulse oximeter;

vii. Auxiliary lighting;

viii. Blood pressure monitoring device; and

ix. Cardiac defibrillator or automated external defibrillator (AED); and

b. Maintains a staff of supervised personnel capable of handling procedures, complications, and emergency incidents, including at least one staff member who:

i. Holds a current course completion confirmation in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) health care provider level;

ii. Is present during the parenteral sedation procedure; and

iii. After the procedure, monitors the patient until discharge;

B. To obtain or renew a Section 1303 permit, a dentist shall:

2. On forms provided by the Board, provide a dated and signed affidavit attesting that any dental office or dental clinic where the dentist will administer oral sedation:

a. Contains the following properly operating equipment and supplies during the provision of sedation:

i. Emergency drugs;

ii. Cardiac defibrillator or automated external defibrillator (AED);

iii. Positive pressure oxygen and supplemental oxygen;

iv. Stethoscope;

v. Suction equipment, including tonsillar or pha-ryngeal and emergency backup medical suction device;

vi. Pulse oximeter;

vii. Blood pressure monitoring device; and

viii. Auxiliary lighting; and

b. Maintains a staff of supervised personnel capable of handling procedures, complications, and emergency incidents, including at least one staff member who:

i. Holds a current certificate in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) Health Care Provider Level;

ii. Is present during the oral sedation procedure; and

iii. After the procedure, monitors the patient until discharge;

B. To obtain or renew a Section 1304 permit, a dentist shall:

2. On forms provided by the Board, provide a dated and signed affidavit attesting that any dental office or dental clinic where the dentist provides treatment during administration of general anesthesia or sedation by a physician anesthesiologist or CRNA:

a. Contains the following properly operating equipment and supplies during the provision of general anesthesia and sedation:

i. Emergency drugs;

ii. Electrocardiograph monitor;

iii. Pulse oximeter;

iv. Cardiac defibrillator or automated external defibrillator (AED);

v. Positive pressure oxygen and supplemental continuous flow oxygen;

vi. Suction equipment, including endotrachael, tonsillar or pharyngeal and emergency backup medical suction device;

vii. Laryngoscope, multiple blades, backup batteries and backup bulbs;

viii. Endotracheal tubes and appropriate connectors;

ix. Magill forceps;

x. Oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways;

xi. Auxiliary lighting;

xii. Stethoscope; and

xiii. Blood pressure monitoring device; and

b. Maintains a staff of supervised personnel capable of handling procedures, complications, and emergency incidents. All personnel involved in administering and monitoring general anesthesia or sedation shall hold a current course completion confirmation in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) Health Care Provider level;

*Codes and regulations cited from Justia US Law.

**Codes and regulations cited from FindLaw.

***Codes and regulations cited from CaseText.

Note: This page serves as an educational resource on Automated External Defibrillators (AEDs) and related legal frameworks. AEDleader.com provides this content for general knowledge purposes and does not claim it to be exhaustive or infallible regarding interpretations of AED laws. It should not be considered legal counsel. We invite you to contact us for detailed guidance on complying with AED regulations specific to your location.

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Arizona
Arizona Map

Arizona